Patient : After my son was born in 1991, my gynecologist found that I had genital warts. My doctor removed them (I think by "freezing" them with a laser treatment), and I haven't needed any follow-up treatment. I'm mainly concerned that my husband may have been unfaithful and passed HPV to me. We were engaged in March 1990, married in September 1990, and our son was born in June 1991. I've read that HPV can lie dormant and that pregnancy may cause an outbreak of visible warts, but I'm wondering if the tests that were first done when my doctor found out I was pregnant in October 1990 (pap test and maybe other tests?) should have found that I had HPV then? (My doctor only found them at my six-week check-up after my son was born in June 1991.) Is it likely that my husband was unfaithful while we were married and then passed HPV to me? Or maybe at that time, the pap smear and any other tests that were done at the beginning of a pregnancy didn't always catch HPV? I appreciate your informaton about this.
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