Patient: Need help interpreting MRI results:IMPRESSION:1) Single level disc disease at L5-S1. This is predominantly due to S1 vertebral body hypoplasia centrally, which uncovers inferior disc margin. There is mild to moderate lateral recess narrowing at this level with effacement of the transiting S1 nerve roots, right slightly greater than left.2) At L4/L5, mild lateral recess narrowing with slight effacement of the transiting L5 nerve roots.I am being told by my chiropractor that #1 is a congenital condition but this is my second MRI. I had an MRI in 2007 what said:Lumbar spine herniated nucleus pulposusAnnular tear at L5-S1My question is: Is my condition really congenital? Because I do not remember getting this diagnosis in the first MRI and was wondering if my current condition could be a result of the annular tear and herniated disc I had in the past.
Symptoms: Lowe back pain, sometimes radiating down my legs